Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. After a shower or bath
B. While standing to void
C. After having a bowel movement
D. While lying in bed before arising
The nurse needs to teach the client how to perform a TSE. The nurse should instruct the client to perform the exam on the same day each month. The nurse should also instruct the client that the best time to perform a TSE is after a shower or bath when the hands are warm and soapy and the scrotum is warm. Palpation is easier and the client will be better able to identify any abnormalities. The client would stand to perform the exam, but it would be difficult to perform the exam while voiding. Having a bowel movement is unrelated to performing a TSE.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Surgical ANTT
B. Standard ANTT
C. Sterile ANTT
D. Clean procedure
Simple procedures requiring asepsis will require Standard ANTT. These procedures include simple wound dressings, IV medication preparation and administration, removal of surgical drains, and changing of IV fluids.
Surgical ANTT is for invasive procedures such as IV cannulation and Urinary catheterization
Clean procedures are for non-invasive, non-sterile skills such as NGT insertion or colostomy care.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Hyperacute graft rejection is due to chronic inflammation and scaring.
B. Hyperacute graft rejection is a cellular response that occurs 1–3 weeks after transplantation.
C. Hyperacute graft rejection is more likely in clients who have received multiple blood transfusions.
D. Hyperacute graft rejection is managed by use of immunosuppressive medications.
Hyperacute graft rejection is more likely to occur in clients who receive a transplant from a donor with an ABO type different from their own, in those with a history of multiple blood transfusions, those with multiple pregnancies, or those with a previous transplant. Answers A and D are incorrect because they describe chronic graft rejection. Answer B describes acute graft rejection; therefore, it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Cleansing the skin with a pH-balanced soap
B. Lubricating the skin with a moisturizing cream
C. Massaging reddened areas of the skin
D. Using absorbent garments for incontinence
The nurse should avoid massaging reddened areas of the skin because it can result in damage to capillary beds and lead to tissue necrosis. Answers A, B, and D are appropriate interventions for the client at risk for pressure ulcers; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. 2–4 mm
B. 3–5 mm
C. 6–8 mm
D. 7–9 mm
The normal pupil diameter is between 3 and 5 mm in size. Answers A, C, and D are not normal pupil diameters; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Bleeding into the joints
B. Cutaneous bleeding
C. Bleeding into the oral cavity
D. Intracranial bleeding
The greatest danger from bleeding in the child with hemophilia is intracranial bleeding. The situations in Answers A, B, and C do not pose the greatest danger from bleeding; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Tuna sandwich, pickle spear, potato chips, and iced tea
B. Ham slice, tossed salad with dressing, gelatin, and coffee
C. Tomato soup, crackers, peanut butter sandwich, and milk
D. Hamburger steak, baked potato, lima beans, and milk
The client with nephrotic syndrome needs a diet with complete proteins and restricted sodium. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they contain high-sodium foods.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Instruct the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver
B. Elevate the tubing above the client’s chest level
C. Decrease the amount of suction being applied
D. Form a water seal and obtain a new connector
The nurse should form a water seal, remove the contaminated end, and insert a new sterile connector. The Valsalva maneuver is used when the chest tube is being removed, therefore Answer A is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because the chest drainage system is maintained below the client’s chest level. Answer C is incorrect because the nurse cannot alter the amount of suction being applied without a doctor’s order.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. A defect in the cochlea
B. A defect in cranial nerve VIII
C. A physical obstruction to the transmission of sound waves
D. A defect in the sensory fibers that lead to the cerebral cortex
A conductive hearing loss occurs as a result of a physical obstruction to the transmission of sound waves. A sensorineural hearing loss occurs as a result of a pathological process in the inner ear, a defect in cranial nerve VIII, or a defect of the sensory fibers that lead to the cerebral cortex.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Prepare the child for surgery
B. Document the finding only
C. Notify the physician
D. Palpate the child’s abdomen
The passage of a soft formed brown stool is an indication that the intussusception is resolving. Answer A is incorrect because the condition is resolving without surgery. Answer B is incorrect because the physician should be notified in addition to documenting the finding. Answer D is incorrect because the nurse should not palpate the abdomen of a child recovering from intussusception.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Urinary output
B. Respirations
C. Temperature
D. Verbal responsiveness
Answer B is correct. Barbiturate overdose results in central nervous system depression, which leads to respiratory failure. Answers A and C are important to the client’s overall condition but are not specific to the question, so they are incorrect. The use of barbiturates results in slow, slurred speech, so answer D is expected, and therefore incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. The procedure will take one to two hours.
B. The client will be given oral medication to prepare for the test.
C. The urine will be bright green until the dye is excreted.
D. The client will need to limit fluid intake after the test.
Fluorescein will cause the client’s urine to be bright green in color until the dye is excreted. Answer A is incorrect; the procedure takes only a few minutes because the vessels fill rapidly. Answer B is incorrect because the dye is injected intravenously. Answer D is incorrect because the client will need to drink additional fluids to help eliminate the dye.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Test the corneal reflexes.
B. Test the 6 cardinal positions of gaze.
C. Test visual acuity, using a Snellen eye chart.
D. Test sensory function by asking the client to close the eyes and then lightly touching the forehead, cheeks, and chin.
Testing the 6 cardinal positions of gaze (diagnostic positions test) is done to assess for muscle weakness in the eyes. The client is asked to hold the head steady, and then to follow the movement of an object through the positions of gaze. The client should follow the object in a parallel manner with the 2 eyes. A Snellen eye chart assesses visual acuity and cranial nerve II (optic). Testing sensory function by having the client close his or her eyes and then lightly touching areas of the face and testing the corneal reflexes assess cranial nerve V (trigeminal).
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Take the medication as ordered prior to the exam
B. Limit the amount of protein in the diet prior to the exam
C. Discontinue the medication prior to the exam
D. Take the medication with only water prior to the exam
Glucophage can cause renal problems. The dye used in cardiac catheterizations is also detrimental to the kidneys. The client may be placed on sliding scale insulin for 48 hours after the dye procedure or until renal function returns. Note the syllable phage, as seen in the syllable phagia, which means eating. Also note that answers A and C are opposites. Answer A is incorrect because the medication should be withheld; answer B is incorrect because limiting the amount of protein in the diet prior to the exam has no correlation to the medication. Taking the medication with water is not necessary, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Ancef (cefazolin sodium)
B. Cipro (ciprofloxacin)
C. Kantrex (kanamycin)
D. Garamycin (gentamicin)
Cipro (ciprofloxacin) is the drug of choice for treating anthrax. Answers A, C, and D are not used to treat anthrax, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
The thyroid is located anterior to the trachea; therefore, laryngeal stridor and airway obstruction is a risk following a thyroidectomy. Answer A is incorrect because this action is not necessary. The need for extra blankets is associated with hypothyroidism, but is not directly associated with thyroid surgery. Answer C is incorrect because the client can talk. Answer D is incorrect because pain medication should be offered as needed, not every four hours.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. “I need to avoid certain foods and drinks to prevent an increase in blood pressure.”
B. “I will schedule an appointment each month to have my blood level checked.”
C. “I will use hard candy or gum to keep my mouth from feeling too dry.”
D. “I will need to take my medicine before meals to improve its effect.”
Dry mouth is a common side effect of antidepressant medications. Using hard candy or gum helps to prevent mouth dryness. Answer A is incorrect because it refers to treatment with MAOI. Answer B is incorrect because it refers to treatment with lithium. Answer D is incorrect because taking the medication with food enhances the absorption rate of the medication.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Begin an IV of normal saline at keep-open rate
B. Continue the magnesium sulfate as ordered
C. Contact the doctor immediately
D. Prepare for an emergency delivery
The therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate is 4.0–9.6 meq/L; therefore, with a magnesium level of 6.3meq/L, the nurse should continue the infusion. Answers A, C, and D indicate that the nurse believes the level to be toxic. This is an incorrect conclusion, making these answers incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Warming the intravenous fluids
B. Determining whether the client can take oral fluids
C. Checking for the strength of pedal pulses
D. Obtaining the specific gravity of the urine
Warming the intravenous fluid helps to prevent further stress on the vascular system. Thirst is a sign of hypovolemia; however, oral fluids alone will not meet the fluid needs of the client in hypovolemic shock, so answer B is incorrect. Answers C and D are wrong because they can be used for baseline information but will not help stabilize the client.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Dermatophytes that cause fungal infections are spread only by human-to-human contact.
B. Infection depends on inoculation and maintenance of the organism in the outer layers of the skin.
C. Treatment of fungal infections continues only until lesions have disappeared.
D. Systemic fungal infections are best treated with antibacterial medications.
Infection occurs when dermatophytes come in contact with a susceptible host that allows inoculation and maintenance in the outer layers of the skin. Answer A is incorrect because dermatophytes are spread by contact with contaminated soil, animals, or humans. Answer C is incorrect because therapy usually continues for one to two weeks after clearing in order to prevent recurrence. Answer D is incorrect because systemic fungal infections are treated with antifungal medications such as Nizoral (ketoconozole), not antibacterial medications.
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